LLB notes

24/08/2026

شریک مالک مخصوص حصہ فروخت کر سکتا ہے، لیکن محض فروخت یا یکطرفہ تتیمہ سے اسے مشترکہ جائیداد سے الگ نہیں کر سکتا۔😉 Legal view

24/08/2026

میڈیکولیگل سرٹیفکیٹس میں اکثر (GCS) کا ذکر ہوتا ہے۔اس ججمنٹ میں (GCS) کی مکمل تعریف اور سکوپ انتہائی وضاحت کے ساتھ بیان کیا گیا ہے۔
Declining Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) indicates a worsening neurological condition due to head injuries, stroke and other brain related issues.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating their eye, verbal, and motor responses, with scores ranging from 3 to 15, where 3 indicates a comatose state and 15 represents normal consciousness. The GCS was developed in 1974 by experts at the University of Glasgow in Scotland. It's a widely used tool for measuring consciousness and coma. It assesses a person's ability to perform eye movements, speak, and move their body. The Glasgow Coma Scale has three categories that apply to a neurological examination. Most of them apply to the brain itself, but some can also involve spinal cord and nerves throughout the body. The GCS is measured with the help of followings;

Eye response: This relates to how awake and alert you are.

Motor response: This part is about how well your brain can control muscle movement. It can also show if there are any issues with the connections between your brain and the rest of your body.

Verbal response: This tests how well certain brain abilities work, including thinking, memory, attention span and awareness of your surroundings.

The scores for each category (E, V, M) are added together to give a total GCS score. The GCS score should be recorded individually, for example, E2V3M4 results in a GCS score of 9. The GCS is used to objectively describe the extent of impaired consciousness in all types of acute medical and trauma patients. In the medical context, consciousness has three requirements; (i) Awake: this includes whether or not you have the ability to wake up because of voice or touch. That’s what makes a coma different from just being asleep (ii) Alert: this is how responsive you are to people talking to you and if you’re able to understand what’s happening in your immediate surroundings (iii) Oriented: this means you know who you are, where you’re at, what day it is and other details related to the here and now.

A declining Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, which measures a person's level of consciousness, typically indicates a worsening neurological condition, potentially due to factors like head injury, stroke, or other brain-related issues. Factors that can cause a GCS score to decrease are as under

(i) Traumatic Brain Injury (TBI): Head injuries, including concussions and more severe trauma, can lead to swelling, bleeding, or damage to brain tissue, all of which can impair consciousness and lower the GCS score.

(ii) Cerebrovascular Accidents (Stroke): Strokes, whether ischemic (due to blocked blood flow) or hemorrhagic (due to bleeding), can disrupt brain function and cause a decline in GCS

(iii) Intracranial Infections or Abscesses: Infections or abscesses within the brain can lead to inflammation and pressure, which can affect brain function and consciousness.

(iv) Other Neurological Conditions: Conditions like epilepsy, poisoning, or even certain psychiatric disorders can also lead to a reduced level of consciousness and a lower GCS score.

(v) Physiological Derangements: Factors like hypoxia (low blood oxygen), shock, or hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) can impair brain function and lower the GCS score.

(vi) Medications and Intoxication: Certain medications, including sedatives, or drug and alcohol intoxication can also depress consciousness and affect the GCS score

(vii) Intubation: If a patient is intubated and unable to speak, they are evaluated only on the motor and eye-opening response and the suffix T is added to their score to indicate intubation.

(viii) Pre-existing conditions: Pre-existing conditions like dementia, speech and hearing impairment can also affect the GCS score.

GCS usually decreases due to head injuries, including concussions and more severe trauma, which can lead to swelling, bleeding, or damage to brain tissue, but in this case no head injury was observed by the doctor. Thus, the GCS is not a perfect tool which can be influenced by various factors, so it should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments which the doctor has not mentioned in detail, leaving the subject to be scrutinized through examination of doctor as witness during the trial.
2026 PCr.LJ 1543
Crl. Misc.10010-B-24
MUHAMMAD RAMZAN VS
STATE ETC

24/08/2026

24/08/2026

يتیم بھتیجے اوربھتیجیوں کا چچا تایا کی جائیداد میں حصہ۔
متوفی کی کوئی اولاد یا والدین نہیں تھے۔ اس کی
وفات کے بعد اس کے بھائی بہن اور ایک پہلے
فوت ہو جانے والے بھائی کے دو بیٹے موجود تھے۔
پہلے فوت شدہ بھائی کے بیٹوں نے مرحوم کے تر
ترکے میں حصہ مانگا۔
عدالتی فیصلہ🫠
ہائی کورٹ نے قرار دیا کہ مسلم فیملی لاز آرڈیننس
1961 کی دفعہ 4 پہلے فوت شدہ بھائی کے بچوں
پر لاگو نہیں ہوتی۔ یہ دفعہ مخصوص حالات میں
پہلے فوت ہونے والے بیٹے یا بیٹی کی اولاد سے
متعلق ہے۔

23/08/2026

🫠 Declaration under section 42 of Specific Relief Act 1877
The distinction between the validity of an alienation and the validity of a tatimma is, however, decisive for the present controversy. The learned counsel for the petitioners has correctly relied upon the principle governing alienation by a co-sharer, but that principle does not authorize a unilateral separation of a specific parcel from a jointly owned survey number. A tatimma is essentially a revenue device for identifying and preparing a sub-division of an existing survey/khasra number. It is not, in itself, a mode of partition whereby the proprietary rights of all co-sharers can be separated or a defined parcel can be taken out of the joint character of the property at the unilateral instance of one co-sharer. The preparation of a tatimma, where it has the effect of severing a defined portion of a jointly owned survey number and giving that portion a separate identity in the revenue record, necessarily affects the proprietary and possessory rights of every recorded co-owner. Consent of all the co-owners is, therefore, a sine qua non for such a consensual sub-division; in the absence of such consent, separation of the joint property can only be achieved through lawful partition proceedings before the competent authority. This distinction assumes particular significance where the alienation is of a specific portion of a joint survey number. A transferor may validly alienate his undivided proprietary interest, or even transfer possession of a specific portion subject to adjustment, but he cannot, by the mere act of alienation, unilaterally transform that portion into a separately identified proprietary parcel to the exclusion of the remaining co-sharers. Such transformation would, in substance and effect, amount to partition without notice to, and without the consent of, the other recorded owners.
The cumulative effect of the foregoing discussion is that three propositions govern the controversy: First, a co-sharer is competent to alienate his undivided proprietary interest in the joint estate, but he cannot transfer a title greater than his own; the validity and extent of the transfer are necessarily subject to his total entitlement in the entire estate. Second, where the transfer relates to a specific portion of a jointly owned survey/khasra number, the identification of that portion does not, by itself, effect partition or sever the parcel from the joint estate. The transferee merely steps into the shoes of the transferor and remains subject to the rights of the other co-sharers and the eventual adjustment in partition. Third, a tatimma, being a revenue mechanism for sub-dividing a survey number and giving a distinct identity to a specified portion, cannot lawfully be used as a substitute for partition. Where its preparation has the effect of separating a specific portion from jointly owned property, the consent of all co-owners is indispensable; failing such consent, separation can only be achieved through lawful partition proceedings conducted by the competent authority. The learned appellate Court, therefore, correctly distinguished between the underlying alienation and the consequential preparation of the tatimma. While it preserved the alienation in favour of defendant No.5, it rightly declined to recognize the unilateral severance of a specific portion of the joint property through Mutation No. 857 and the tatimma prepared pursuant thereto. awaited 2026 PHC 5299
CR No. 35-P of 2013 Rizwanullah Khan and others Vs Muhammad Usman Khan and others

23/08/2026

تتیمہ (Tatimma) تقسیمِ جائیداد کا متبادل نہیں —🫠 شریک مالک کی مخصوص حصے کی فروخت کا قانونی اثر
2026 PHC 5299
اس فیصلے میں مشترکہ جائیداد، شریک مالک کی طرف سے مخصوص حصے کی فروخت اور تتیمہ (Tatimma) کے درمیان اہم فرق واضح کیا گیا ہے۔

1۔ شریک مالک کا حق:
شریک مالک اپنی غیر منقسم ملکیتی حیثیت (undivided share) کسی دوسرے شخص کو منتقل کر سکتا ہے، لیکن وہ اپنے حصے سے زیادہ ملکیت منتقل نہیں کر سکتا۔

2۔ مخصوص حصہ فروخت کرنے کا اثر:
اگر مشترکہ کھاتہ/خسرہ نمبر میں سے کوئی شریک کسی مخصوص ٹکڑے کو فروخت کرتا ہے تو محض اس فروخت سے وہ ٹکڑا مشترکہ جائیداد سے الگ نہیں ہو جاتا۔ خریدار صرف فروخت کنندہ کے حقوق میں اس کی جگہ لیتا ہے اور دیگر شریک مالکان کے حقوق برقرار رہتے ہیں۔

3۔ تتیمہ کیا ہے؟
تتیمہ بنیادی طور پر ایک ریونیو طریقہ کار ہے جس کے ذریعے موجودہ خسرہ نمبر کے کسی حصے کو الگ شناخت دی جاتی ہے۔ یہ بذاتِ خود تقسیم (Partition) کا متبادل نہیں ہے۔

4۔ یکطرفہ تتیمہ ناقابلِ قبول:
اگر تتیمہ کے ذریعے مشترکہ خسرہ کا مخصوص حصہ باقی شریک مالکان سے الگ کر کے ایک علیحدہ ملکیتی پارسل بنا دیا جائے تو اس سے تمام شریک مالکان کے ملکیتی اور قبضہ کے حقوق متاثر ہوتے ہیں۔ لہٰذا تمام شریک مالکان کی رضامندی ضروری ہے۔

5۔ رضامندی نہ ہو تو کیا ہوگا؟
اگر تمام شریک مالکان رضامند نہ ہوں تو مشترکہ جائیداد کو الگ کرنے کا واحد قانونی راستہ مجاز اتھارٹی کے سامنے باقاعدہ تقسیم (Partition) کی کارروائی ہے۔

نتیجہ:
عدالت نے اصل alienation/فروخت کو برقرار رکھا، لیکن Mutation No. 857 اور اس کے نتیجے میں تیار کردہ یکطرفہ Tatimma کے ذریعے مشترکہ جائیداد کے مخصوص حصے کو الگ کرنے کو تسلیم نہیں کیا۔

اہم اصول:

> Co-sharer مخصوص حصہ فروخت کر سکتا ہے، لیکن محض فروخت یا یکطرفہ تتیمہ کے ذریعے مشترکہ جائیداد سے اس حصے کو قانونی طور پر الگ نہیں کر سکتا؛ علیحدگی کے لیے رضامندی یا باقاعدہ partition ضروری ہے۔

23/08/2026

يتیم بھتیجے اوربھتیجیوں کا چچا تایا
کی جائیداد میں حصہ۔🙃

23/08/2026

APP PAST PAPER MCQS
1. In Syed Zafar Ali Shah case, i.e., PLD 2000 SC 85, the Supreme Court of Pakistan allowed ...... period to the Executive Branch from the date of the Act of October, 1999 for achieving his objectives
· A. Ninety days
· B. One year
· C. Two years
· D. Three years

2. In Syed Zafar Ali Shah case, i.e., PLD 2000 SC 86, the Supreme Court of Pakistan held that the 1973 Constitution still remains the supreme law of the land subject to the constitution that certain parts thereof have been ......

· A. Amended
· B. Held to be amended
· C. Modified
· D. Removed

3. Pakistan shall be ...... Republic to be known as the Islamic Republic of Pakistan.

· A. Democratic
· B. Islamic
· C. Federal
· D. Parliamentary

4. As per Art 5, Loyalty to the ...... is the basic duty of every citizen.

· A. Law
· B. State
· C. Government
· D. Constitution

5. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being ...... as soon as may be, on grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner or any other person.

· A. Heard
· B. Informed
· C. Granted opportunity to explain
· D. Decided

6. The Chief Justice of Pakistan and each of the other Judges of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the ...... in accordance with Article 175A.

· A. Judicial Commission
· B. Parliament
· C. President
· D. Prime Minister

7. If at any time it is not possible for want of quorum of Judges of the Supreme Court to hold or continue any session of the Court, the Chief Justice of Pakistan, with the approval of the President and with the consent of the House of the People, may adjourn the session of the Court to attend another session of the Supreme Court as an ...... for such period as may be necessary.

· A. Acting
· B. Ad hoc
· C. Temporary
· D. Provisional

8. As per Article 188, The Supreme Court shall have power, subject to the provisions of any Act of Majlis-e-Shahadat (Parliament) & of any rules made by the Supreme Court, to review any judgment pronounced or any order passed by ......

· A. Subordinate Courts
· B. District Courts
· C. High Courts
· D. All of the above

9. Dying Declaration is:

· A. Indirect Evidence
· B. Secondary evidence
· C. Primary evidence
· D. None of the above

10. Relevant facts are those facts which are relevant to the cause of action.

· A. Are declared to be relevant by the Qanun-e-Shahadat order
· B. Appear before the relevant circumstances
· C. Are relevant according to the law of the time
· D. Are declared to be relevant by the Qanun-e-Shahadat order and any other law of the time being in force

11. Qanun-e-Shahadat Order 1984 is having ...... effect.

· A. Only prospective
· B. Retrospective
· C. Only some of the provisions
· D. Both retrospective and prospective

12. Article 19 lays down doctrine of ......

· A. Gestae
· B. Res judicata
· C. Obiter dicta
· D. Res nullius

13. Admissions and confessions are distinguished in:

· A. Admissible are written, while admissible are oral
· B. Admissible are oral, while admissible are written
· C. Admissible are oral, while admissible are written
· D. Admissible are oral, while admissible are written

14. The doctrine of estoppels is not applicable to:

· A. Executive action or policy of the state
· B. Acts in discharge of duties enjoyed by law
· C. Exercise of legislative power
· D. All of the above

15. Section 160 of the Cr. P.C. enshrines:

· A. Examination of witnesses by police
· B. Police officer’s power to require attendance of witnesses
· C. Procedure where cognizable offence suspected
· D. None of the above

16. When a person is charged with one offence:

· A. He cannot be convicted
· B. He cannot be convicted
· C. He shall not be convicted
· D. None of these

17. Which of the following is not a ground for acquittal?

· A. Crime of violence
· B. Crime of fraud
· C. Crime of conspiracy
· D. Crime of treason

18. According to Section 8 of “The Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, 1984”, no Revenue Officer shall be compelled to give evidence against himself.

· A. The collection of revenue
· B. The commission of any offence
· C. The commission of any offence
· D. The commission of any offence

19. The word “man” denotes a male human being of age ...... years.

· A. More than 7 years ago
· B. More than 10 years ago
· C. More than 14 years ago
· D. Any age

20. The words “servant of the State” denote all officers or servants continued/appointed or employed under the authority of the Federal Government or any Provincial Government.

· A. In or outside Pakistan
· B. In Pakistan
· C. By the government of Pakistan
· D. By the government of Pakistan

---

21. Q.22 Noticing is an offence which is done without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution.

· A. We offend purpose
· B. By chance
· C. By Accident
· D. Accidental

22. Q.23 In such a case, whether the harm to be prevented or avoided was of such a nature and so imminent as to justify or excuse the risk of doing the act with the knowledge that it was likely to cause harm.

· A. Person who does the act in a state of intoxication intentionally
· B. Person who does the act in a state of intoxication unintentionally
· C. Person who does the act in a state of intoxication accidentally
· D. Person who does the act in a state of intoxication accidentally

23. Q.24 A surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live, though he has been told by the communication might cause the patient's death. The patient dies in consequence of the shock. A common mistake is:

· A. No offence
· B. Influence of medicine
· C. Offence of negligence
· D. Offence of quasi-such acts

24. Q.25 Under the influence of medicines, attempts to kill, A reacts in private defence and cause the death of Z. The act is:

· A. not justified
· B. partially justified
· C. justified
· D. wholly justified

25. Q.26 A bill is Z, the material nucleus of his son B. Z has no other will except O the wife of A. O has the right of access from A but if O dies, the right of access shall devolve on her son B who is also the son of the offended A. Q says:

· A. Shall not be entered
· B. Shall be entered
· C. Cannot be entered
· D. May not be entered

26. Q.27 A unlawful dig at pit in the thoroughfare, but without any intention to cause death of, or harm to, any person. A while passing from there falls in it and is killed. A has committed:

· A. Culpable and
· B. Guilt-less
· C. Guilt-less and
· D. Guilt less

27. Q.28 The arch for causing light of an organ which is found singly in a human body shall be:

· A. Equivalent to the value of day
· B. One half to the value of day
· C. One third of the value of day
· D. One fourth to the value of day

28. Q.29 A throws a stone, intending or knowing it to be likely that the stone will strike water, and dash up the water against Z's clothes. A has committed the offence of:

· A. Criminal intention
· B. Assault
· C. Battery
· D. Using criminal force

29. Q.30 "Complain!" Complain means the allegation made orally or in writing to:

· A. Court
· B. Magistrate
· C. Sultan House Officer
· D. Police Officer

30. Q.31 In making an arrest the police officer or other person making the same ... The body of the person to be arrested, unless there, be a submission to the custody by word or action:

· A. May not touch or confine
· B. Shall not exhibit
· C. May exhibit
· D. Shall exhibit

31. Q.32 The person arrested shall not be subjected to more restraint than is ... to prevent his escape:

· A. Essential
· B. Necessary
· C. Required
· D. Mandatory

32. Q.33 Whenever a person is arrested by a police-officer under arrest, the police officer ... such person and place in safe custody all articles, other than necessary weapons:

· A. May search
· B. May not search
· C. Shall search
· D. Shall not search

33. Q.34 Any police-officer, without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant, arrest any person who obstructs a police-officer while in the ex*****on of his duty.

· A. Shall
· B. Can
· C. May
· D. May not

34. Q.35 Any private person may arrest any person who in his view commits a non-bailable and cognizable offence, or any proclaimed offender.

· A. Shall
· B. Can
· C. May
· D. May not

35. Q.36 The police officer or other person executing a warrant of arrest shall notify the substance thereof to the person to be arrested, and if so required, ...

· A. Shall show him the warrant
· B. Shall not show him the warrant
· C. May show him the warrant
· D. May not show him the warrant

36. Q.37 A person who has no ostensible means of subsistence, or who cannot give a satisfactory account of himself, Magistrate may require such person to show cause why he should not be ordered to execute a bond, with sureties, for his good behaviour for such period, not exceeding:

· A. One year
· B. Two years
· C. Three years
· D. Four years

37. Q.38 As a principle ...... from any judgment or order of a Criminal Court except as provided for by CrPC or by any other law for the time being in force.

· A. No appeal shall be
· B. Appeal shall be
· C. No appeal may be
· D. Appeal may be

38. Q.39 An accused person has pleaded guilty and has been convicted by a High Court, a Court of Session or Magistrate of the first class on such plea, there shall be ... appeal except as to the extent or legality of the sentence.

· A. Right of
· B. Subject to
· C. Non discretionary
· D. No

39. Q.40 When more persons than one are convicted in one trial, and an appealable judgment or order has been passed in respect of any such person, all or any of the persons convicted at such trial ... have a right of appeal.

· A. May
· B. May not
· C. Shall
· D. Shall not

40. Q.41 When any person accused of non-bailable offences is arrested or detained ... be released on bail unless the prosecution has been given notice to show cause why he should not be so released.

· A. May
· B. May not
· C. Shall
· D. Shall not

41. Q.42 What is the maximum period of gestation according to Imam Malik:

· A. 1 lunar year
· B. 2 lunar years
· C. 25 lunar years
· D. 2 lunar years

42. Q.43 Proper power is called:

· A. Mahir-Ul-Mudh
· B. Mahir Muajjal
· C. Mahir Muawaja
· D. Mahir-Ul-Musannaf

43. Q.44 Fatwas Alamgiri was compiled in the:

· A. Tenth century of the Hijra
· B. Fifteenth century of the Hijra
· C. Eighteenth century of the Hijra
· D. None of these

44. Q.45 Wakf for Limited period is:

· A. Valid
· B. Not valid
· C. Voidable
· D. None of these
یہ Past Papers تصاویر سے Online OCR کے ذریعے Text میں Convert کیے ہیں، اس لیے ان میں Spelling یا دیگر غلطیاں ہو سکتی ہیں۔ یہ مواد صرف رہنمائی اور تیاری کے مقصد سے شیئر کیا جا رہا ہے۔ اصل پرچے سے موازنہ ضرور کریں۔

23/08/2026

PAST PAPER
Q1 Bicameralism is given in the Constitution of Pakistan, 1973 under Article:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 51
D. None of these

Q2 Which Amendment had closed the doors of Horse trading?
A. 12th
B. 13th
C. 14th
D. None of these

Q3 Which Article provides Title of the Constitution:
A. Article 265
B. Article 266
C. Article 267
D. None of these

Q4 Council of Islamic Ideology shall consist of Not:
A. Less than 8
B. More than 20
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

Q5 Quorum of the Provincial Assembly is:
A. 1/4 of the Total Membership
B. 2/3 of the Total Membership
C. 3/4 of the Total Membership
D. None of these

Q6 Khula under Compulsion is valid under:
A. Shia Law
B. Sunni Law
C. Both A & B
D. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939

Q7 Absence of husband is ground of dissolution of marriage if he is absent for:
A. Five years
B. Three years
C. Four years
D. None of these

Q8 Talaq through agent is:
A. Vaid
B. Void
C. Voidable
D. None of these

Q9 [No question text given; only options]
A. Revocable
B. Irrevocable
C. Voidable
D. None of these

Q10 Sources of the Constitution of 1973 are:
A. Govt of India Act, 1935
B. Objective Resolution
C. Indian Constitution of 1973
D. All of these

Q11 According to Hanafi Law of Inheritance, there are:
A. 4 classes of heirs
B. 5 classes of heirs
C. 6 classes of heirs
D. None of these

Q12 Evidence obtained through modern devices is discussed under Art.
A. 164
B. 165
C. 166
D. 167

Q13 Who may record Dying Declaration:
A. Police Officer
B. Magistrate
C. Any Person
D. None of these

Q14 Who conducts Identification Parade:
A. Police Officer
B. Magistrate
C. Sessions Judge
D. Investigation Officer

Q15 According to Art. 16 QSO, an Accomplice is competent witness in all cases except in:
A. Case of Death
B. Handwritten Cases
C. Case of Murder
D. Case of Kidnapping

Q16 Judicial Notice can be taken in:
A. In Civil Cases
B. In Criminal Cases
C. In Civil & Criminal Cases
D. None of these

Q17 Article 19 QSO deals with the concept of:
A. Presumption of Innocence
B. Right Declaration
C. Res Gestae
D. None of these

Q18 An agreement without consideration is:
A. Valid
B. Voidable
C. Void
D. None of these

Q19 All frauds contain goods belonging to Aslam, Ali keeps them in his custody and incurs some expenses on searching Aslam, There is:
A. Implied Contract
B. Quasi Contract
C. Expressed Contract
D. None of these

Q20 When the parties to Contract agree to substitute a new Contract, that is called:
A. No-vacancy
B. Alteration
C. Recession
D. None of these

Q21 Kinds / Examples of Wagering Agreements are:
A. Speculative Transactions
B. Collateral Transactions
C. Lottery
D. All of these

Q22 In Contract of Guarantee, there are:
A. Three Parties
B. Two Parties
C. Four Parties
D. None of these

Q23 When Damages are fixed or ascertained in the Contract itself, they are called:
A. Vindictive damages
B. Liquidated Damages
C. Special Damages
D. Ordinary Damages

Q24 Effects of Misfeas of Law are:
A. Misfeas of Pass-Name
B. Misfeas of Foreign Law
C. Misfeas of Private Rights
D. All of these

Q25 All painted the house of Ahmad and Akhtar paid him the amount agreed, this is a:
A. Executed Contract
B. Quasi Contract
C. Express Contract
D. None of these

Q26 Which of the following is not public document:
A. FIR
B. Confession Statement required by Magistrate
C. Power of Attorney
D. Municipal Register of Death & Birth

Q27 Common Intention is the basis of the principle of:
A. Strict liability
B. Constructive Liability
C. Vicarious Liability
D. None of these

Q28 Injury on the Head of the Table is called:
A. Shaking
B. Laugh
C. Jaffa
D. None of these

Q29 Punishment of Criminal Intimidation is provided under section:
A. 503
B. 504
C. 506
D. 507

Q30 When violence is used by the member of the Unlawful Assembly, it is called:
A. Arraignment
B. Rioting
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

Q31 Arsh & Daman are kinds of:
A. Thief
B. Quarrel
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

Q32 Theft deals with:
A. Movable property
B. Immovable Property
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

Q33 Section 149 PPC applies where culprits are:
A. Four or less than four
B. Four or more than four
C. Five or more than five
D. None of these

Q34 In Robbery, there is:
A. Theft
B. Extortion
C. Either of these
D. None of these

Q35 The right of private defence of property extends to death in case of:
A. Robbery
B. House breaking by night
C. Mechatry by fire committed on human dwelling place
D. Any of these

Q36 Section 44 of SRA deals with:
A. Appointment of Recoverer
B. Injunctions
C. Can-breach of Instruments
D. Ratification Instruments

Q37 What is the period of Limitation under section 10 SRA:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. None of these

Q38 Every information relating to the commission of a cognizable offence if given to the officer in-charge of Police Station, shall be reduced in writing under section:
A. 161 Cr P C
B. 164 Cr P C
C. 166 Cr P C
D. 154 Cr P C

Q39 The form of FIR Contains:
A. 5 Columns
B. 6 Columns
C. 4 Columns
D. None of these

Q40 Offence of Qati e Amd can be compounded by the:
A. Hears the Victim
B. Complainant
C. Witness
D. None of these

Q41 Modes of Judgement are explained in Section:
A. 164
B. 165
C. 366
D. 367

Q42 A Charge is framed during trial of a Criminal Case in the presence of:
A. Complainant
B. Accused
C. Witnesses
D. Public Prosecutor

Q43 International Law is the body of:
A. Customary Rules
B. Conventional Rules
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

Q44 Quorum of the full Court of I.C.J. is under Art. 25 (C) of Statute of ICJ:
A. 14 Judges
B. 15 Judges
C. 11 Judges
D. 9 Judges

Q45 Under Art. 7 of Statute of ICJ, ICJ shall consist of:
A. 15 Judges
B. 12 Judges
C. 9 Judges
D. 11 Judges
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22/08/2026

Specific Relief Act---Suit for declaration and injunction---Statement in proceedings seeking succession certificate---Not a bar for the civil court to reach a contrary conclusion--- Respondent/plaintiff was real sister of petitioners/defendants who had sought partition of their ancestral house---One of the petitioners/defendants claimed to be exclusive owner on the basis of a gift deed executed in his favour and relied upon statement made by respondent/plaintiff during proceedings under the Succession Act, 1925---Suit filed by respondent/plaintiff was dismissed by the Trial Court but the Lower Appellate Court passed a preliminary decree of partition of inherited property--- Validity ---Proceedings for obtaining succession certificate are summary in nature and disputed questions of title and entitlement cannot be determined therein---Resort is to be made to a court of plenary jurisdiction for determination of disputed facts through a civil suit---Determination by a civil court is binding on courts granting succession certificates in summary jurisdiction---Findings recorded in succession certificate proceedings cannot operate as a bar for the civil court to reach a contrary conclusion regarding title or rights---Mere statement made in such proceedings does not amount to relinquishment of legal right to inheritance--- High Court declined to interfere in the well-reasoned judgment and decree passed by the Lower Appellate Court as no illegality, jurisdictional defect, misreading or non-reasoning of evidence was found---Lower Appellate Court was justified in setting aside the judgment of dismissal passed by the Trial Court and directing issuance of preliminary decree---Revision was dismissed, in circumstances.
2026 M L D 1001
Lahore