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ॐ॥सुख, सम्पति, स्वरुप, संयम, सादगी, सफलता, साधना, संस्कार, स्वास्थ्य, सम्मान, शान्ति एवं समृध्दि की मंगलकामनाओं के साथ आ...
01/01/2017

ॐ॥
सुख, सम्पति, स्वरुप, संयम, सादगी, सफलता, साधना, संस्कार, स्वास्थ्य, सम्मान, शान्ति एवं समृध्दि की मंगलकामनाओं के साथ आप के परिवार को नये साल 2017 की हार्दिक शुभकामनाएं ॥ॐ॥

Official portrait of New Indian Air Force Chief B.S Dhanoa after taking the charge.
01/01/2017

Official portrait of New Indian Air Force Chief B.S Dhanoa after taking the charge.

29/11/2016

Applicants including educated unemployed persons whose proposals are found bankable in accordance with the norms laid down by the concerned bank obtain loans for self-employment ventures. However, there are many applications which are not approved for various reasons which, inter alia, include applicant being unclear about activity proposed to be taken up, applicant wanting to enter activity without training/experience & no apparent capacity to run a business in that line, non-viable/Inflated business plan, Inability/unwillingness of the applicant to furnish requisite margin money, history of previous default etc.

The Government already facilitates educated unemployed youth in obtaining such loans in a number of ways which, inter alia, include,guiding interested applicants on proper filling up of application forms, identifying person specific activity to be taken up for business assistance in preparing a viable business plan, advising the applicants about the processes followed by banks & other funding institutions, Entrepreneurship education, Model business plans for different businesses posted on different portals for the guidance of aspiring entrepreneurs etc.

In addition, self-employment is supported through schemes such as Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP), Pradhan MantriRojgarProtsahanYojana (PMRPY), Stand Up India (SUI), Pradhan Mantri YUVA Yojana (PMYY) etc.

This was stated by Shri Santosh Kumar Gangwar, Minister of State in the Ministry of Finance in written reply to a question in Rajya Sabha today.

29/11/2016

The Government has decided to grant Permanent Residency Status (PRS) for 10 years with multiple entry to foreign investors making investment of minimum of Rs. 10 crores to be brought within 18 months or Rs. 25 crores to be brought within 36 months. PRS will also be granted to the spouse/dependents of the eligible foreign investor. The foreign investment should result in generating employment to atleast 20 resident Indians every financial year. The scheme is expected to encourage foreign investment in India and facilitate Make in India. In addition to the restrictions imposed in the FDI policy, security guidelines issued/ as may be issued by the Government from time to time shall also be applicable.

This was stated by Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal, Minister of State in the Ministry of Finance in written reply to a question in Rajya Sabha today.

11/09/2016

Science for JCECE .. Answer Keys will be Uploaded 8:00 PM Get connected via Whatsapp on 7070446663 type JCECE ADD

1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect? 2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
(i) Lead is getting reduced.
(ii) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(iii) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(iv) Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) all

2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
Chemical Reactions and Equations 15
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.

3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron fillings? Tick the correct answer.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
4. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10

5. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains

(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl

6. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be

(a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL

7. Which one of the following types of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic
8. Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place when –
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.
9. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal.

10. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting?
(a) Applying grease
(b) Applying paint
(c) Applying a coating of zinc
(d) All of the above.

11. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(a) calcium
(b) carbon
(c) silicon
(d) iron.

12. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
(a) zinc is costlier than tin.
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
13. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
(a) 6 covalent bonds.
(b) 7 covalent bonds.
(c) 8 covalent bonds.
(d) 9 covalent bonds.
14. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
(a) carboxylic acid.
(b) aldehyde.
(c) ketone.
(d) alcohol.
15. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that
(a) the food is not cooked completely.
(b) the fuel is not burning completely.
(c) the fuel is wet.
(d) the fuel is burning completely.
16. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic Table.
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic.

17. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with a high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of the Periodic Table as
(a) Na (b) Mg (c) AI (d) Si

18. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system for
(a) nutrition.
(b) respiration.
(c) excretion.
(d) transportation.

19. The xylem in plants are responsible for
(a) transport of water.
(b) transport of food.
(c) transport of amino acids.
(d) transport of oxygen.

20. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires
(a) carbon dioxide and water.
(b) chlorophyll.
(c) sunlight.
(d) all of the above.

21. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy takes place in
(a) cytoplasm.
(b) mitochondria.
(c) chloroplast.
(d) nucleus

22. Which of the following is a plant hormone?
(a) Insulin
(b) Thyroxin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Cytokinin.
23. The gap between two neurons is called a
(a) dendrite.
(b) synapse.
(c) axon.
(d) impulse.
24. The brain is responsible for
(a) thinking.
(b) regulating the heart beat.
(c) balancing the body.
(d) all of the above.
25. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding in
(a) amoeba.
(b) yeast.
(c) plasmodium.
(d) leishmania.
26. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system in human beings?
(a) O***y
(b) Uterus
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Fallopian tube
27. The anther contains
(a) sepals.
(b) ovules.
(c) carpel.
(d) pollen grains

28. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea plants bearing white flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them were short. This suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent can be depicted as

(a) TTWW
(b) TTww
(c) TtWW
(d) TtWw

29. An example of homologous organs is
(a) our arm and a dog’s fore-leg.
(b) our teeth and an elephant’s tusks.
(c) potato and runners of grass.
(d) all of the above.

30. In evolutionary terms, we have more in common with
(a) a Chinese school-boy.
(b) a chimpanzee.
(c) a spider.
(d) a bacterium.
31. Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?

(a) Water (b) Glass (c) Plastic (d) Clay

32. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and largerthan the object. Where should be the position of the object?

(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.

33. Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens
(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.

34. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be
(a) both concave.
(b) both convex.
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex.
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave.

35. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror
is likely to be

(a) plane.
(b) concave.
(c) convex.
(d) either plane or convex.

36. Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.

37. The human eye can focus objects at different distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye lens. This is due to
(a) presbyopia.
(b) accommodation.
(c) near-sightedness.
(d) far-sightedness.

38. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
(a) cornea. (b) iris. (c) pupil. (d) retina.

39. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a) 25 m. (b) 2.5 cm. (c) 25 cm. (d) 2.5 m.

40. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
(a) pupil. (b) retina. (c) ciliary muscles. (d) iris.

41. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R′, then the
ratio R/R′ is –

(a) 1/25 (b) 1/5 (c) 5 (d) 25

42. Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?

(a) I2R (b) IR2 (c) VI (d) V2/R

43. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the
power consumed will be –

(a) 100 W (b) 75 W (c) 50 W (d) 25 W

44. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in series and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential
difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel combinations would be –

(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1

45. Which of the following correctly describes the magnetic field near a long straight wire?
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred on the wire.
46. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
(a) the process of charging a body.
(b) the process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil.
(c) producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
(d) the process of rotating a coil of an electric motor.
47. The device used for producing electric current is called a
(a) generator.
(b) galvanometer.
(c) ammeter.
(d) motor.
48. The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that
(a) AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator haspermanent magnet.
(b) DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(c) AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
(d) AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.

49. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
(a) reduces substantially.
(b) does not change.
(c) increases heavily.
(d) vary continuously.

50. A solar water heater cannot be used to get hot water on
(a) a sunny day. (b) a cloudy day.
(c) a hot day. (d) a windy day.

51. Which of the following is not an example of a bio-mass energy source?
(a) Wood (b) gobar-gas
(c) nuclear energy (d) coal

52. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not ultimately derived from the Sun’s energy?
(a) Geothermal energy (b) wind energy
(c) Nuclear energy (d) bio-mass.
53. Which of the following groups contain only biodegradable items?
(a) Grass, flowers and leather
(b) Grass, wood and plastic
(c) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice
(d) Cake, wood and grass

54. Which of the following constitute a food-chain?
(a) Grass, wheat and mango
(b) Grass, goat and human
(c) Goat, cow and elephant
(d) Grass, fish and goat

55. Which of the following are environment-friendly practices?
(a) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while shopping
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother to drop you on her scooter
(d) All of the above

30/08/2016
IRNSSIndian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) : NavICIRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite sy...
26/08/2016

IRNSS
Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) : NavIC
IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.

Expected cut off for Qualifying for Main of CGSCE 2015 based on Expert Opinion & Analysis of QP
26/08/2016

Expected cut off for Qualifying for Main of CGSCE 2015 based on Expert Opinion & Analysis of QP

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: A Giant Step Towards Better Life For All Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched by th...
24/08/2016

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: A Giant Step Towards Better Life For All
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched by the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi on May 1st, 2016 in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh. Subsequently, it was launched in West Bengal, on the eve of Independence Day, on 14th August, 2016 at Nazrul Manch in Kolkata. The initiative, in line with the dream of the Prime Minister of creating smoke-less villages across the country, has come as a moment of pride for the women in BPL- households for getting LPG connection as an identity of their own and to lead a smoke-free, less polluted, convenient and healthy life.

Dr. Urjit R Patel has been appointed as the New Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a period of three years with...
21/08/2016

Dr. Urjit R Patel has been appointed as the New Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for a period of three years with effect from 4th September, 2016. He will replace the present RBI Governor Dr. Raghuram Rajan. Dr Patel is presently the Deputy Governor of RBI and is holding this assignment since 2013.

Employees of NSSO belong to Indian Statistical service(appointment through Union Public Service commission) and Subordin...
20/07/2016

Employees of NSSO belong to Indian Statistical service(appointment through Union Public Service commission) and Subordinate statistical service(appointment through staff selection commission).

NSSO has four divisions:[1]
1.Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD)
2.Field Operations Division (FOD)
3.Data Processing Division (DPD)
4.Co-ordination and Publication Division (CPD)

The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective ...
05/07/2016

The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.

The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of sittings and will follow circuit procedure for making itself more accessible. New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other 4 place of sitting of the Tribunal.

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