Fcps-1 preparation stuff

Fcps-1 preparation stuff FCPS-1 Preparation.

17/02/2023

Which among the following is a mode of primary prevention?

Pap smear collection
Marriage counselling
Breast examination
Rehabilitation

B is the answer

Which of the following is true regarding sampling?

a. In simple random sampling the population is divided into strata
B. Snowball sampling is used for hidden population
c. Snowball sampling is used for hidden population More sample in systemic random sampling
D. Cluster sampling is less cost effective

B is the answer

Confirmed case of fluorosis is defined by presence of fluoride in urine more than:

1 mg/L
3 mg/L
5 mg/L
7 mg/L

A is the answer

Montenegro test is used for diagnosis of:

Kala azar
Leprosy
Malaria
Leptospirosis

A is correct

All of the following statements regarding case control study are true, except

Used to find the relative risk
Odds ratio can be calculated
Relatively cheap
Used for rare diseases

A is correct

You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On further investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of the vaccine. You would consider the incidence as:

Vaccine reaction
Injection reaction
Programme error
Coincidental

B is correct

Which of the following is not a proxy measure of the incubation period of a disease?

Communicable Period
Latent Period
Serial Interval
Generation Time

A is correct

Rotavirus vaccine doses should not be initiated beyond which age to prevent complications:

6 weeks
10 weeks
12 weeks
32 weeks

C is correct

Which of the following is an example of an enzootic?

Leprosy
Typhoid
Cholera
Anthrax

D is correct

Which of the following is NOT one of the degrees of health as per spectral concept of health?

Good Health
Better Health
Positive Health
Freedom from Sickness

A is correct

A 20 year old is found to have blood pressures of 134/86 and 136/89 on two separate occasions. He will be classified as:

Normotensive
High normal BP
Stage 1 hypertension
Stage 2 hypertension

B is correct

True about case control study A/E

Less expensive
Those with disease and not diseased compared
Attributable risk is estimated
None of these

C is correct

Which of the following statements is true about BCG vaccination?

Distilled water is used as diluent for BCG
The site of injection should be cleaned with spirit
Mantoux test becomes positive after 48 hours of vaccination
WHO recommends Danish 1331 strain for vaccine production

D is correct

What is the amount of fluid to be given to a 2 year child weighing 12 Kg with severe dehydration in the first half an hour of IV rehydration?

120 ml
240 ml
360 ml
840 ml

C is correct

Which of the following disease is NOT included under diseases considered as eradicable by the International Task Force for Disease Eradication?

Polio
Measles
Rubella
Malaria

D is correct

Incidence rate can be calculated from:

Cohort study
Case control study
Cross sectional study
Descriptive study

A is correct

By which of the following method the incidence of a disease can be calculated?

Prospective study
Retrospective study
Case control study
Cross sectional study

A is correct

Ability of an organism to induce clinically apparent illness is known as:

Infectivity
Pathogenicity
Virulence
Viability

B is correct

Movement across socioeconomic levels is termed as:

Social Equality
Social Upliftment
Social Mobility
Social Insurance

C is correct

Which of the following vaccine is associated with Toxic Shock Syndrome?

Infected BCG vaccine
Infected DPT vaccine
Infected Polio vaccine
Infected Measles vaccine

D is correct

Breast milk fully meets the nutritional requirements of the infant in the first few months of life. All of the following are true about breast milk, EXCEPT:

Maximum output is seen at 12 months
Coefficient of iron absorption is 70%
Calcium utilization from breast milk is more than cow's milk
Breast milk protein is reference protein

A is correct

IQ of 98 is classed at which level of intelligence?

Idiot
Normal
Superior
Near genius

B is correct

Endemic Disease' means that a disease:

Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy
Is constantly present in a given population group
Exhibits seasonal pattern
Is prevalent among animals

B is correct

You are planning a screening program for a particular disease in your community. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective method of screening?

Multiphasic screening
Mass screening
High risk screening
Any of the above

C is correct

Thrombocytopenia is an adverse reaction of which vaccine:

BCG
DPT
MMR
Hep B

C is correct

Which of the following is the best method of doing randomization?

Computer drawn randomization
Odd/even day hospital admission
Lottery
Random number table

D is correct

Specificity of a test refers to its ability to detect the following:

True positives
True negatives
False positives
False negatives

B is correct

In a village with population of 5000, 50 people have a disease and 10 of them died. What is case fatality rate?

1%
2%
0.5%
20 %

D is correct

Calculate IMR if in a population of 100000 there are 3000 live births in a year and 150 infant deaths in the same year:

75
18
5
50

D is correct

In the natural history of disease, all are true about the period of pathogenesis, EXCEPT:

Occurs after agent enters host body
Tertiary prevention is possible at this stage
Screening does not affect the course of the phase
Sub-clinical phase can be present

C is correct

Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in which of the following parameters?

Causes of death
Numerators
Age distributions
Denominators

C is correct

Which of the following is not an essential component of primary health care?

Provision of Essential Drugs
Cost effectiveness
Immunization against major infectious diseases
Health education

B is correct

Early reaction of lepromin test is read at:

24 hours
36 hours
48 hours
72 hours

C is correct

While applying chi-square test to a contingency table of 6 rows and 6 columns, the degree of freedom would be?

30
35
15
25

D is correct

Which of the following drugs has the highest bactericidal activity against Mycobacterium leprae?

Rifampicin
Clofazimine
Dapsone
Minocycline

A is correct

Allocation concealment is not possible in a research study conducted on the effects of Risperodone. Selection bias in a study can be eliminated by which of the following procedures?

Randomization
Single blinding
Double blinding
Matching

A is correct

Which of the following study type is the best to study natural history of a disease?

Cohort Study
Case Control Study
Randomized Control Trials
Interventional Studies

A is correct

Tourniquet test is used in the diagnosis of:

Dengue
Scurvy
Malaria
Hypertension

A is correct

In a community, an increase in new cases denotes:

Increase in incidence rate
Increase in prevalence rate
Decrease in incidence rate
Decrease in prevalence rate

A is correct

Which of the following is the MOST useful index for the measure of the burden of disease in a defined population?

Park’s index
Disability adjusted life years
Morbidity proportion
Case fatality rate

B is correct

The denominator for calculating the incidence rate of specific disease is which of the following?

Mid year population
Population at risk
Population observed
Total population

B is correct

The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:

Sensitivity
Specificity
Positive predictivity
Negative predictivity

D is correct

All of the following indicators represent Human Development Index, except:

Life Expectancy at Birth
Life Expectancy at 1 year of age
Education
GDP

B is correct

All are indicators of goal 6 of Millennium Development Goal, EXCEPT:

HIV prevalence among women aged 15-49 years
Number of children orphaned by HIV/AIDS
Prevalence and death rates of tuberculosis
Prevalence and death rates of malaria

A is correct

Vitamin A prophylaxis is an example of:

Health promotion
Specific protection
Disability limitation
Primordial prevention

B is correct

A women is exposed to multiple s*x partners has 5 times increased risk for Carcinoma Cervix. The attributable risk is:

20%
50%
80%
100%

C is correct

You are asked to help consult on a study which was recently completed in coastal African country. In this study, a total of 274 soldiers stationed in three different camps were examined and tested for the presence of bacterial s*xually transmitted diseases (STD) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positivity. In addition to the information from the clinical exam and laboratory specimens, interviews were conducted to gather information on age, years of military service, ethnicity, and region of origin. The data are now to be a**lyzed to learn which factors were associated with the presence of STDs, including HIV. What is the most accurate description of this study design?

A case-control study
A cohort study
A clinical trial
A cross-sectional study

D is correct

Which of the following studies is BEST in establishing causal association in aetiology of a disease?

Case control study
Cohort study
Randomized control trial
Ecological study

C is correct

Which is not a method of primordial prevention of diseases?

Regular exercise
Abstinence from alcohol intake
Dietary change
Identification of cases of Tuberculosis

D is correct

Which of the following is associated with emotional valence and is most likely to be influenced by motivation?

Attitude
Belief
Practice
Knowledge

C is correct

Rgarding experimental studies, in a randomized controlled trial (RCT) all are true, EXCEPT:

Baseline characteristics are comparable
Bias can be eliminated by double blinding
Sample size depends on the type of study
Dropouts are excluded from the study

D is correct

Which among the following statement is TRUE about 'serial interval'?

Time interval between invasion of infection and appearance of first sign or symptom
Time between onset of primary case and secondary case
Interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximum infectivity
Time in which infectious agent is transferred from one host to another

B is correct

Cause to effect progression is seen in all of the following research studies, EXCEPT:

Case control study
Ecological study
Cohort study
Randomized control trial

A is correct

A study was initiated in 1999 with a population of 5000 adults. They were enquired about their drinking habits to study the relationship of alcohol consumption to the subsequent occurrence of cancer. The study was planned for 20 years till 2015 to 2019. This is an example of what type of epidemiological study?

Cross-Sectional Study
Case Control Study
Current Cohort Study
Retrospective Cohort Study

C is correct

The method of identifying missing cases and supplementing notified cases in the population is known as:

Active surveillance
Passive surveillance
Sentinel surveillance
Monitoring

C is correct

Inner subjective thought of a person towards an individual or situation is best termed as:

Attitude
Value
Belief
Opinion

A is correct

You are the medical officer of a PHC in a taluka and you confirm the diagnosis of polio in one of your patients. This can be considered as:

Endemic
Epidemic
Sporadic case
Pandemic

B is correct

Human development index includes All except

Crude death rate
Education
Life expectancy at birth
GDP

A is correct

Targeted intervention programmes for HIV are done among the following group of people, EXCEPT:

Commercial s*x worker
Migrant laborers
Street children
Industrial worker

D is correct

A person wants to study deafness and mobile phone usage. He collected data on mobile phone usage from government source and deafness from district and private clinics. This type of study is known as:

Experimental study
Ecological study
Etiological study
Cross-sectional study

B is correct

Smoking is the cause of 85% of lung cancers that occurred within a group of smokers. This is an example of which of the following statistics?

Population attributable risk.
Odds ratio
Attributable risk
Relative risk

C is correct

With regard to hypertension, which is not a mode of primary prevention?

Weight reduction
Exercise
Reduced salt intake
Early diagnosis of hypertension

D is correct

Which of the following is NOT a socio economic indicator of health care?

Dependency Ratio
Family Size
Life Expectancy at Birth
Level of Unemployment

C is correct

Iceberg phenomenon differentiates:

Apparent and inapparent
Symptomatic and asymptomatic
Cases and carriers
Diagnosed and undiagnosed

A is correct

Association can be measured by all of the following, EXCEPT:

Correlation coefficient
Cronbach's alpha
P value
Odds ratio

B is correct

Which of the following statement is not correct regarding case control study?

Proceeds from effect to cause
Exposure already occurred
Odd’s ratio can be determined
Incidence rate can be calculated

D is correct

Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?

Cause specific death rate.
Case fatality rate.
Standardized mortality ratio.
Five year survival.

B is correct

A new test for diabetes was carried out of the 80 people who were tested positive (+ve), it was found that actually 40 had diabetes and out of 9920 people who were tested negative (-ve) only 9840 did not have the disease actually. The sensitivity of this new test is:

33%
50%
65%
99%

A is correct

The comparison of mortality rates between two countries requires the application of direct standardization. Which if the following parameters makes it necessary to have standardization?

Numerators
Denominators
Causes of death
Age distributions

D is correct

Patientswith STD are asked to name other persons of either s*x who move in the same socio s*xual environment. These patients are then screened for the disease. This process is known as:

Cluster testing
Mass screening
High risk screening
None of the above

A is correct

Which of the following will cause an increase in the prevalence of disease?

Immigration of healthy persons
Increased cure rate of disease
Longer duration of disease
Increased death rate in disease

C is correct

You are conducting a study on a new type of infectious disease and find that the case fatality rate is high. It means that:

The disease is highly infective
The disease has a short incubation period
The disease is caused by a virulent organism
All the above

C is correct

The population of a community on the 1st of June was recorded as 1,65,000. Total no. of new cases of Tuberculosis, recorded from 1st January to 31st June were 22. Total Registered cases of tuberculosis in the community were recorded as 220. What is the incidence of TB in this community per 10 lakh population?

133
220
13.3
22

A is correct

The method in which the sample is taken from each predefined strata of society is called?

Simple random sampling
Systemic sampling
Stratified sampling
Multistaged sampling

C is correct

What is the major advantage of randomised sample in a clinical trial?

Facilitate double blinding
Help ensure that the study subjects are representative of general population
Ensure that the groups are comparable on baseline characteristics
Reduce selection bias in allocation of treatment

D is correct

Standard deviation is the measure of:

Chance
Central tendency
Deviation from the mean value
Range

C is correct

Degree of freedom of a chi square test in contingency table of 2 by 2 is?

1.0
Zero
2
4

A is correct

One of the epidemiological indices used to measure the tuberculosis problem in a community is the prevalence of infection. Which among the following is widely used to estimate the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a population?

Sputum smear examination
Tuberculin test
Chest X-ray
Symptoms suggestive of tuberculosis

B is correct

All of the following holds true about cluster sampling, except:

Is a Rapid and simple method
Samples are similar to those in Simple Random Sampling
It is a type of probability sample
The sample size may vary according to study design

B is correct

Which of the following research methods include only people who are initially free of the disease of interest?

Case series report
Cross-sectional
Case-control study
Cohort study

D is correct

In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000 people. The remainder did not receive any carotene. 3 out of the first group later suffered from lung cancer while 2 out of the secornd group (non-recepients) also got lung cancer. What is your reasonable conclusion?

Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to each other
The p value is not significant
The study is not designed properly
Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer

A is correct

The ability of a test to correctly diagnose the percentage of sick people who are having the condition is known as?

Sensitivity
Specificity
Positive predictive value
Negative predictive value

C is correct

30/08/2022




Surface Ectoderm: NILE & AHE MAP
N ails
I nner & Outter Ear
L ens of eye
E pidermis
A nterior Pituitary (Rathke pouch)
H air
E enamel of teeth
M ammary glands
A a**l ca**l BELOW pectinate line
P arotid gland.

Neuroectoderm = Neural Tube: CAN PRO
C NS: Somatic Motor Neurons and Preganglionic Neurons (ANS)
A strocytes ☆
N eurohypophysis (Posterior Pituitary)
P ineal gland
R etina & O ptic Nerve
O ligodendrocytes (myelinate all the cell)

Neural Crest: MA & POPE GASP
M eninges: Pia & Arachnoid
A drenal medulla
P igment cells (chromaffin cells)
O dontoblasts
P haringeal arch CARTILAGE
E ndocardial cushions
G anglia: Sensory Pseudounipolar neurons & Postganglionic Neurons (ANS)
A orticopulmonary Septum
S chwann cells (PNS, myelinate one segment)
P arafollicular cells

17/08/2022

In case of reimplantation of an amputated digit, which of the following structures is fixed first?
A. Nerve
B. Artery
C. Vein
D. Bone

Correct answer : D. Bone

REIMPLANTATION OF AN AMPUTATED DIGIT – PROCEDURE

Debride the area and clean the wound
Fixation of bone
Repair of extensor tendons
Repair of flexor tendons
Arterial repair
Nerve repair
Venous repair
Closure of the skin wound

15/03/2022

100 Important of
1. Potassium is mainly regulated by - Aldosterone.
2. Tip of scapula at level – T7.
3. Oblique fissure of the lung at level - T3 to T6 Costochondral.
4. Decussating of medial lemniscuses - Internal Arcuate Fibers.
5. Superficial temporal artery relation with which nerve - Auriculotemporal nerve.
6. Correct about Thyroid gland - lymph drainage to deep cervical lymph nodes.
7. Anemic hypoxia occur in – Methemoglobulenemia.
8. In cerebral circulation brain arteries - Do not anastomose once entered in the brain (controvertial).
9. Phase 1 of transformation of drug metabolism – Oxidation.
10. Standard deviation shows - Variability of individual observation.
11. Counseling in patients is - To help themselves.
12. A young girl who is going to die and asks you “Am I going to die?” Doctor response should be – “What your parents have told you?”
13. In whole wheat – Thiamine.
14. Cholesterol enriched diet – Egg.
15. Origin of peroxisomes – SER.
16. Organelle where protein combines with carbohydrates, packed and released - Golgi complex.
17. Correct about DNA – Euchromatin is transcriptionally active.
18. ADPKD associated with – Renal failure (vs) Cerebral haemorrhage (controversial) here most probable Renal failure.
19. Cause of delay in healing – Infections.
20. PaO2 decreased, PCO2 increased, hydrogen ion increased; manifestation (looked like kind of COPD) – Hypoventilation.
21. PCO2 31, HCO3 19, pH increased (Metabolic alkalosis scenario) - Hyperventilation
22. Person with tachycardia, and heat intolerance with low level of TSH, on giving TRH; level of TSH and thyroid hormones increases. Diagnosis – Hyperthyroidism with thyroid problem.
23. Origin of oxytocin and ADH – Hypothalamus.
24. Difference between systemic and pulmonary circulation - Low resistance in pulmonary circulation.
25. Mean systemic filling pressure is regulated by - Venous return.
26. Systolic pressure is directly related to which one of the following – Renin.
27. ADH responds to – Osmolarity.
28. Osmoreceptors – ADH.
29. Right border of heart on X-ray also visible a part of – SVC.
30. In MI sensitive cardio marker – Tropinin T.
31. Diabetic nephropathy investigation - Urine albumin.
32. Young boy with generalized edema and proteinuria - Lesion of basement membrane.
33. Lesion of parasympathetic system affects mostly - GI muscles.
34. Stress hormone of our body - ACTH.
35. S2 sound heard on - Closure of aortic and pulmonary valve.
36. A patient with history hemorrhage (trauma) receives a bag stored for 2 weeks mainly contains – RBCs.
37. Due to inspiration – Decreased negative intrapleural pressure.
38. Important buffer of blood - HCO3-.
39. Max increase in ECF due to infusion of - Hypertonic NaCl.
40. Auscultation of tricuspid valve best heard at – Right lower end of the body of sternum.
41. GVE vagus nerve for preganglionic fiber arises from – Dorsal nucleus.
42. Thorn prick in left lower limb caused abscess - Staph aureus.
43. Diabetic female after abdominal surgery; dyspnea and cough - Pulmonary embolism.
44. MCC of pulmonary embolism – DVT.
45. Typhoid fever 1st week test – Blood culture
46. Typhoid fever 2nd week test – Blood culture and Widal test.
47. Typical feature of falciparum - Black water fever.
48. Alcoholic patient with deranged LFTs; on biopsy – Mallory bodies.
49. Councilman bodies seen in – Apoptosis.
50. Natural self-defense against tumors – Apoptosis.
51. P53 gene absent results in - cell survival.
52. Pain mediator - Bradykinins.
53. Metaplasia – Functional change in cells.
54. Female with infection of HPV, comes after 2 years, Pap smear shows prominent nucleoli and increased nucleus size – Dysplasia.
55. Gas exchange occur - Simple squamous epithelial layer.
56. Patient with granulomatous disease, biopsy done. Microscopic finding that suggests TB – Epitheloid cells.
57. The spindle fibers will decrease in discharge of impulses when - Muscle contracts (vs) When efferent gamma discharge occurs. (controversial) here most probable “muscle contracts”
58. Diagnosis for leprosy, initial investigation - Nasal scrapping.
59. Benign neoplasm – Adenoma.
60. 3 germ layers tumor – Teratoma.
61. When adrenalin release from medulla, causes vasodilation by acting on - Beta 2 adrenergic receptors.
62. Increased GFR and increased plasma flow occur due to - Dilation of afferent arteriole.
63. Charateristic of cerebellar lesion - Dymetria
64. Emax of a drug depends on – Efficacy
65. Study in which every person of a population has equal chances of being selected – Random sampling.
66. Amniocenthesis is done - After 14th weeks.
67. 1st response against acute inflammation in tissue – Macrophages.
68. In dark granules containing cells; IgE attaches to – Basophils.
69. Opsonization - C3b.
70. Exudate - more than 3g of proteins.
71. About active transport of drug all are true except - All drugs pass via active transport.
72. Pulmonary artery supply to – Alveoli.
73. Muscles of back innervated by - Dorsal rami.
74. In young boy dyspnea produced on lying - Retrosternal goiter.
75. Most important cause of bronchogenic cancer – Smoking.
76. Edema caused by - Increased hydrostatic pressure.
77. Edema caused by - Lymphatic blockage.
78. BP 210/180mmHg and creatinine 8% damaged part – Juxtaglomerular apparatus.
79. Female with blood group A, have 2 children; one with O and other with AB, blood group of father is – B.
80. Genetically true hermaphrodite – XX/XY.
81. DNA replication occur in – Interphase.
82. Glycogenolysis caused by deficiency of which hormone - Insulin
83. Investigation for liver amoebic abscess – Serology.
84. Surgery of submandibular gland; nerve damaged - marginal mandibular branch of facial.
85. On posterior surface of oblique and transversalis fascia - Arcuate line.
86. Aspirin overdose causes – Coma.
87. Cardiac output measurement via thermodilution – Temperature change downstream with CO.
88. Father with defective gene on one autosomal chromosome, develops disease later in his life; chances of getting disease in children – Half of the children will be affected.
89. If left circumflex artery occluded - Infarction of left atrium and left ventricle.
90. MCC of multiple fractures in adult – Osteoporosis.
91. Patient with fracture of many bones and low BP immediate treatment - Volume replacement.
92. Most common fracture of long bone - Tibia.
93. Collagen fibers – Eosin stain
94. Gamma efferent supply to – Intrafusal muscle spindles.
95. Micturition – Self generating.
96. Hallmark of HIV – Proliferation of virus in T-Cells.
97. 1g protein gives energy – 4 kcalories.
98. Isotonic and isometric contraction difference is that isotonic contraction – consumes more phosphate bond.
99. Autonomic nervous system – parasympathetic increase salivary secretion.
100. Protrusion of mandible – Lateral pterygoid.

15/03/2022

LYMPHATIC DRAINAGE OF MAJOR ORGANS

GIT: all lymph of GIT is drained into CYSTERNA CHYLI, THORACIC DUCT & then finally drains into LEFT SUBCLAVIAN VEIN

CERVICAL ESOPHAGUS drains into Deep cervical nodes

THORACIC ESOPHAGUS drains into posterior mediastinal nodes

ABDOMINAL ESOPHAGUS drains into Preaortic & celiac nodes

STOMACH is drained to Aortic nodes

SMALL INTESTINE drains into Superior Mesentric nodes

LARGE INTESTINE drains into Central nodes through Epicolic, Paracolic & Intermediate nodes

RE**UM: Upper half drains into Inferior mesentric nodes
Lower half drains into internal iliaac nodes

A**L CA**L: Upper half into internal iliac nodes
Lower half into Superficial inguinal nodes

MALE GE***AL TRACT
SC***UM drains into Superficial inguinal nodes
TE**IS drains into Paraaortic nodes
PROSTATE drains into Internal & external Iliac nodes
P***S.. Skin.. Superficial Inguinal nodes
Deep structure.. Internal Iliac nodes

FEMALE GE***AL TRACT
O***Y, FALLOPIAN TUBES, UPPER UTERINE CORPUS drains into Aortic & paraaortic nodes.
UPPER VA**NA, CERVIX drains into External & Internal Iliac nodes.
LOWER VA**NA & V***A drains into Inguinal nodes.

28/10/2021



1. During a surgery a surgeon nick hepatoduodenal ligament. Which structure on right side is likely to be damaged? A. Portal vein B. Bile duct (answer) C. IVC D. Hepatic Duct
2. Gall Bladder A. Produces bile B. Submucosa is present C. Mucosa is thrown in extensive circular folds(answer)
3. Bare area of liver is limited by A. Right and left triangular ligament B. Falciform ligament C. Ligament teres D. Ligament venosum E. Coronary ligament (answer)
4. Medial side of arm is supplied by A. Medial cord (answer) B. Lateral cord C. Musculocutaneous nerve D. Median nerve
5. Pendular knee jerk A. UMN lesion B. LMN lesion C. Hypothyroidism D. Parkinson E. Cerebellar lesion (answer)
6. Intercostal spaces A. Have three layers of muscles in between costal cartilages B. Supplied by only sensory nerves C. Blood supply from int. Thoracic artery n thoracic aorta(answer) D. Neurovascular bundle is present at upper border of rib
7. Neurovascular bundle A. Lies deep in ribs B. Lied on upper border of ribs C. Lies beneath lower border of ribs (answer)
8. Mesonephric duct functional remnant or unit is A. Epididymis B. Ductus deferens (answer) C. Va**na D. Uterus
10. Metastatic Calcification of kidney most commonly due to A. Hypervitaminosis D B. Hyperparathyroidism (answer) C. Hypercalcemia
11. Main supply of head of humerus A. Ant circumflex artery B. Post circumflex artery C. Arteries around rotator cuff D. Arcuate artery (answer) E. Subscapular artery
12. Deep cervical artery is a branch of A. Costocervical trunk (answer) B. Subscapular artery C. Aorta 1st part D. Int thoracic artery
13. Proximal part of CBD is supplied by A. Inf mesenteric artery B. Sup mesenteric artery C. Cystic artery (answer) D. Right hepatic art E. Left hepatic artery
14. A pt. got spleen rupture and she is going to spleenectomy. What’s her peripheral blood picture right now A. Howel jowel bodies (answer) B. Thrombocytopenia
15. Infant’s spinal cord ends at A. Btw L1 and L2 B. Lower border of L3 (answer) C. L2
16. Esophagogastric junction is at A. T11 (answer) B. T7 C. L1 D. L3
17. Portal HTN A. Left colic (answer) B. Inf mesenteric C. Inf epigastric
18. A young 1yr old has hydrocele A. Scrotal swelling B. Peritoneal fluid accumulation (answer) C. Te**is inflammation
19. Sigmoid and descending colon drain into A. Left colic nodes B. Inf mesenteric nodes (answer) C. Sup mesenteric nodes
20. Hip joint is A. Related post to psoas bursa B. Has Obturator ext. inferiorly (answer) C. Related to femoral nerve
21. Femur bone A. Lateral ligament attached to lower epicondyle (answer) B. Plantaris muscle
22. Re**um is A. Straight structure B. Has haustrations circular folds C. Post to re**um is S3S4S5
23.Deep inguinal ring& Inf epigastric artery A. Medial B. Lateral(answer)
24. AV bundle A. Only neuro connection btw right atria &ventricle (answer) B. Present in right atria
25. Post interventricular artery supplies A. Both right and left ventricle (answer) B. SA node C. Rt atria
26. Most medial nucleus of cerebellum A. Fastgial (answer) B. Dentate
27. Defect in interventricular septum causes or affects which valve most A. Aortic B. Pulmonary (answer) C. Tricuspid D. Mitral E. Coronary sinus
28. Lateral side of breast drains into A. Pectoral LN
29. Esophagus constricted at A. Where crossed by arch of aorta (answer) B. Post mediastinum + left ventricle C. Rt bronchus
30. Site of radial artery pulse is A. Ext pollicis and abd pollicis(answer) B. Brachioradialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
31. Most imp anatomic largest subdivision of prostate is A. Median lobe B. Peripheral zone (answer) C. Transitional zone

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